If warfarin indirectly inhibits Protein C and S causing a procoagulant state, how does it work in the long term despite that?

Given that it causes a paradoxical procoagulation state within the first 36 hours of initial administration due to the inhibition of Protein C and S, and therefore we give Heparin to counteract this process.. How does warfarin continue to be an anticoagulant after that period of time (after stopping heparin) without further risk of coagulation due to inhibition of protein c and s?

Authored By Abdelrahman Mona on Tuesday 13th November 2012

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Peter Calvert
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Medical Student - Lancaster
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Posted almost 8 years ago

The primary reason for giving heparin in the early stages is that warfarin has a delayed onset of about 48 hours. If a patient needs an immediate anticoagulant effect, warfarin won't provide this, but heparin will.

Warfarin works, specific

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Alastair Burden
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Medical Student
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Posted almost 8 years ago

It inhibits Vitamin K. Vitamin K is required for the full activation of clotting factors II, VII, IX & X. Thus the inhibition of the activation of these factors provides an anticoagulant state

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